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Why Should the Bible Translator Be Faithful to Preserve the Meaning of John 8:58?
Introduction and Background
There is no verse in the New Testament more contested among translators than John 8:58. Differences in translation methodology and doctrinal viewpoints have generated significant divergence in English renderings, making it a pivotal example of how translators manage the Greek grammar of a passage that holds implications for one’s view of the person of Christ. Some translations render John 8:58 in a way that seems to connect Jesus’ words with the Hebrew Scriptures, implying that Christ directly claimed the divine name. Other translations retain the present-tense formulation “I am” in a literal sense but supply no additional emphasis, while still others prefer a translation along the lines of “I have been,” aligning with what many grammarians call the Present of Past Action still in progress (PPA). The question arises whether the translator’s primary duty is to replicate Greek words with maximum literalness or to convey the original meaning by respecting the idiomatic usage of Greek tenses and how the immediate context frames those tenses.
Translation of Scripture is no mere academic exercise. It wields influence on readers’ perceptions of who Jesus is and what he meant to say. The faithful translator seeks a rendering that neither obscures the text nor imposes upon it a preconceived idea. According to the objective historical-grammatical method, one aims to preserve the intention of the author by analyzing grammar, syntax, immediate context, remote context, and the setting in which the statement was made. Translators must be conscious of the tension between literal forms on the one hand and accurate representation of meaning on the other. With John 8:58, that tension intensifies because the differences in translation can subtly alter how readers see the identity and preexistence of Christ.
The Problem of Bias in Translation
Any discussion of John 8:58 quickly leads to the issue of translator bias. All translators have theological convictions. The question is whether they allow those convictions to override grammar rules and contextual indicators they normally respect in other passages. A translator committed to a rigorous approach might ask if he or she is violating the accepted usage of Koine Greek verbs in order to support or negate a particular doctrinal stance. Some translations that usually maintain a literal approach to the Greek text nevertheless show a surprising willingness to modify their approach at John 8:58, making it read “I am” in an absolute sense when the grammar suggests a meaning that reflects ongoing action from the past up to the present. This inconsistency begs an important question: why do they translate certain present indicative verbs in John 14:9, John 15:27, and other places as “have been,” but refuse to do the same in John 8:58?
Bias does not always manifest as an overt distortion. In many cases, translators simply prioritize older traditions or inherited renderings, especially if those renderings have become embedded in confessional statements. Others might underscore the phrase “I am” to draw a link to Exodus 3:14, a text describing Jehovah’s self-revelation to Moses: “I am who I am.” Yet, as we shall see, the Greek text of Exodus 3:14 does not exactly match the phrase at John 8:58. Additionally, the context of Exodus 3:14 involves Moses encountering the One who identified Himself as Jehovah, while the context of John 8:58 involves a discussion of Abraham’s day and how Jesus’ existence preceded Abraham’s birth. Therefore, the translator must decide carefully whether any direct or unbreakable link is intended by the apostle John.
Publishers and committees responsible for Bible translations can also introduce pressures that move the text in one direction or another. A translation might retain a reading that is known to be an interpolation or that leans strongly on a traditional interpretation simply to avoid unsettling the community that relies on a particular doctrinal perspective. This raises the question of whether commercial or institutional interests can overshadow fidelity to the text. Genuine faithfulness requires a translator to resist any external influence that would obscure the original meaning.
Setting John 8:58 in Context
John 8:58 reads differently in multiple English versions. Some maintain “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am,” while others say, “I have been,” or “I was,” or even expand it to “I have been in existence.” The impetus behind the conversation is John 8:56–57, where Jesus says that Abraham “rejoiced that he would see my day,” prompting the Jews to ask, “You are not yet fifty years old and have you seen Abraham?” The question is about age and duration of life rather than a direct inquiry into divine identity. By responding “before Abraham was, I am,” or a variant, Jesus indicates a startling claim about his ongoing existence. That claim was enough to provoke those listening to pick up stones to throw at him (John 8:59).
The immediate context in John 8 is not an abstract discussion of the divine name from Exodus but a challenge to how Jesus could possibly have interacted with Abraham, who lived centuries earlier. If the question is about how Jesus could have known Abraham, the best sense of Jesus’ reply is that he existed before Abraham’s birth. This leads one to consider carefully how the Greek grammar expresses duration leading up to the present moment.
Grammar of John 8:58: Present of Past Action Still in Progress
The basic Greek phrase is “πρὶν ᾿Αβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί.” Taken literally word-by-word, it can be rendered “before Abraham to become I am.” But English normally arranges its verbs in a way that respects how time is portrayed. The older tradition that yields “Before Abraham was, I am” merges a reference to a past event with a present-tense verb. In English, that structure is awkward because it does not clarify what Jesus meant about his existence.
Greek grammars describe something called a Present of Past Action still in progress (PPA). That usage involves a present tense verb accompanied by an adverbial phrase indicating a start point in the past and continuing up to the present time. John 14:9 offers a straightforward example: “I have been with you so long,” where the literal Greek is “so much time with you I am,” but translators correctly convey it in English as “I have been with you.” John 15:27 likewise includes “you have been with me from the beginning,” yet the Greek has “you are with me from the beginning.” The present tense verb “are” is shaped by the adverbial phrase “from the beginning,” producing a sense that extends from the past to the present. Translators have no problem writing “you have been” in John 15:27, thus obeying the PPA principle.
When one comes to John 8:58, that same principle should apply if one is consistent. The phrase πρὶν ᾿Αβραὰμ γενέσθαι is an adverbial expression pointing to a past time (before Abraham was born). The present indicative εἰμί is modified by that adverbial phrase, thereby indicating an action (existence) that began before Abraham was born and continues up to the moment Jesus speaks. Grammatically, the best reflection in idiomatic English is, “I have been,” or “I have been in existence,” or “I have existed.” Such a rendering does not deny the uniqueness of Christ’s status, for it emphatically asserts that he was already in existence before Abraham’s birth.
The Context of Other “I am” Statements
The Gospel of John contains multiple places where Jesus says “ἐγώ εἰμι” in contexts that plainly require an implied predicate. For instance, John 8:24 includes “unless you believe that I am,” with the recognized insertion of “he” to clarify that the meaning is “I am he.” John 4:26 employs the same phrase, “I am,” but the sense is “I am the one,” in response to the Samaritan woman’s statement about the coming Messiah. Such examples show that “I am” statements often need an understood predicate or clarifying phrase to complete the thought. Translators are accustomed to adding words like “he,” “the one,” or “he who speaks to you” to preserve the sense in English.
Some might contend that John 8:58 is an exception, an absolute usage that ties back to Exodus 3:14. Yet the Greek text of the Septuagint at Exodus 3:14 reads “ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν” (“I am the one who is”), rather than “ἐγώ εἰμι” by itself. If John intended to replicate that exact phrase, he could have employed “ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν,” but that does not appear in John 8:58. Moreover, Exodus 3:14 references Jehovah speaking to Moses about the name to be given to the Israelites, while John 8:58 addresses how Jesus’ existence predates Abraham. There is no direct contextual reference in John 8 to Moses’ experience at the burning bush.
Why Did the Jews Pick Up Stones?
Some ask why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus if he was not using the divine name. The answer emerges from the magnitude of what he said. Claiming to have been alive since before Abraham, who lived around 2,000 B.C.E., points to an extraordinary status that no normal man could possess. Moreover, Jesus had made multiple declarations that upset religious leaders, including the bold charge that they were not truly children of Abraham in a spiritual sense (John 8:39–40). By claiming preexistence that reached back before Abraham’s lifetime, Jesus was elevating himself in a way that the crowd viewed as blasphemous or outrageous. Regardless of whether they took “I am” to be a title of deity or simply an audacious declaration of pre-human existence, they were furious enough to resort to violence.
Faithful Translation and the Grammar-Sense Balance
In many parts of the Gospel of John, translators handle the present tense in the PPA construction properly. They transform the present tense “I am” or “you are” into an English perfect like “I have been” or “you have been.” Doing so clarifies the meaning. But in John 8:58, some translators revert to a strictly literal “I am.” In some cases, they capitalize “I AM,” even though there is no justification in the Greek for that capitalization. By capitalizing the verb, the translator is imposing a theological significance that the original text does not explicitly mark.
One of the cardinal rules of translation is that one must preserve the sense of the original. Literalness is admirable, but not when it creates a nonsensical or misleading sentence in the target language. At times, one must shift the tense in English to reflect the function of the Greek tense. The PPA is a recognized category, and ignoring it can produce confusion. A faithful translator examines the grammar, considers parallel constructions within the same biblical book, checks the immediate context, and then makes a decision that best conveys what the author originally intended.
Examples of the Present Tense Modified by a Past-Time Expression
John 14:9 includes a phrase that literally reads: “So long a time with you I am.” Translators rightly render this as “Have I been with you so long,” because the present tense is shaped by the adverbial phrase referencing the duration. Similarly, John 15:27 says “you are with me from the beginning,” yet standard translations read “you have been with me from the beginning.” The factor that triggers the shift in tense is the presence of the adverbial phrase pointing to a past start time continuing into the present.
John 8:58 employs “πρὶν ᾿Αβραὰμ γενέσθαι,” or “before Abraham came to be.” The same logic applies. A recognized grammar resource such as Ernest De Witt Burton’s “Syntax of the Moods and Tenses in New Testament Greek” classifies John 8:58 under the category of PPA. Herbert Weir Smyth’s “Greek Grammar for Colleges” outlines how Greek can use the present tense with expressions of past time to indicate a continuing situation from the past up to the moment of speaking.
Interpretation of John 8:58
No single text should be used to build an entire doctrine of Christ’s nature. One finds throughout the Gospel of John that Jesus holds a unique relationship with the Father and preexisted in heaven before his human life (John 1:1, John 3:13, John 6:38). John 8:58 affirms his longstanding existence. Whether that existence is phrased as “I am” or “I have been” does not negate the reality of Jesus’ prehuman state. Translators who adhere to the Greek grammar can render John 8:58 in a way that clarifies that Jesus’ existence did not start on earth.
Those who favor “Before Abraham was, I AM” often do so to highlight a supposed connection to the divine name. However, one can still hold that Christ is divine, the unique Son of Jehovah, while rendering the verse “Before Abraham was born, I have been.” The translator need not distort the grammar to defend any aspect of Christ’s extraordinary identity. Faithfulness to the text means letting the grammar speak for itself, even if the resulting translation might not align with certain confessional expectations.
The Context of Exodus 3:14
Exodus 3:14 in many English Bibles reads “I AM WHO I AM.” Some connect that statement with John 8:58 to suggest that Jesus was calling himself “I AM,” the same as Jehovah’s self-identification to Moses. Yet the Greek Septuagint version of Exodus 3:14 uses “ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν” (I am the one who is), not simply “ἐγώ εἰμι.” Furthermore, the original Hebrew of Exodus 3:14 can be translated as “I will be what I will be,” capturing the sense of Jehovah’s unchanging nature. Jesus’ statement at John 8:58 does not precisely replicate the language or the immediate context of Exodus 3:14. Instead, he is answering a question regarding his relationship to Abraham.
The Jews’ Reaction and the Accusation of Blasphemy
Some might argue that the Jews’ attempt to stone Jesus proves he uttered the divine name. Yet the text does not say they heard him pronounce the Tetragrammaton (Jehovah). Rather, the conversation shows they were offended at Jesus’ claim of existing before Abraham. This could be seen as a tremendous, even blasphemous claim if they deemed it a statement of self-exaltation. The Fourth Gospel regularly depicts these leaders as enraged by Jesus’ words, especially when he asserts prerogatives they believed only God could hold. The notion of existing centuries before one’s birth was a powerful statement, and that alone can explain their violent outrage.
Comparing Key Translations of John 8:58
Certain translations try to preserve the sense that Jesus was referring to ongoing existence. For instance, some older marginal notes in versions that typically used “I am” indicated that “have been” was another option. The Updated American Standard Version says: “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I have been,” reflecting the PPA. Others preserve the older reading, “before Abraham was, I am,” with or without capitalization, though some add footnotes to reference alternative translations or grammar insights.
Some translations that tilt toward a dynamic equivalence approach render John 8:58 with a wide expansion, stating, “I was and am and always will be,” or “I existed before Abraham was even born.” Those expansions reflect an interpretive paraphrase that tries to capture the continuity of Jesus’ existence, though they may go beyond what a strictly literal or formal equivalence approach would do.
Avoiding Misinformation and Nonsensical Renderings
A literal approach is generally valuable, but translators must also avoid producing English sentences that are confusing or that distort the time reference. Saying “before Abraham was, I am” in standard modern English might prompt the mistaken notion that Jesus was making a simple present tense statement with no reference to an ongoing past. This can sow misunderstanding if the reader is not aware of the Greek usage. In many other verses, translators wisely shift the present to an English perfect tense to convey the ongoing action from the past. Doing otherwise in John 8:58 can misrepresent the sense of the passage.
Some argue that leaving the present tense “I am” is coherent because Jesus is simultaneously present in eternity. This argument leans more on theological reflection than on grammatical usage in Koine Greek. While the Fourth Gospel certainly does point to the deep union between the Father and the Son, and while Jesus’ existence transcends normal human constraints, the grammar of John 8:58 is straightforward if one recognizes the PPA construction. The question is not whether Jesus is eternal, but how best to render his statement in idiomatic English that aligns with how Greek expresses past action continuing to the present.
Potential Theological Concerns
A translator who chooses “I have been” might worry that this choice underplays Christ’s deity. Yet that worry is unfounded. Nothing in the grammar-based translation “I have been” denies that Jesus is divine or the unique Son with prehuman existence. In fact, the claim of having been alive before Abraham is immensely significant. One does not need to force a second link to Exodus 3:14 to highlight the Son’s divine origin or nature. The remainder of the Gospel of John, including the Prologue (John 1:1–18), the claims about his heavenly origin (John 6:62), and the unique statement of Thomas in John 20:28 (“my Lord and my God”), present powerful testimony to Christ’s extraordinary status.
The Translator’s Task and Responsibility
Translators must decide how to express the Greek text in accurate, clear, and natural English without introducing theological bias. The Holy Spirit inspired the text of Scripture, and translators aim to communicate what that inspired text says. The question is whether rendering John 8:58 as “I am” is truly the best reflection of the underlying grammar or whether it is an inherited tradition with theological motives. A translator can remain theologically conservative and still uphold the grammatical principle that yields “I have been.” One can believe in Christ’s deity, eternality, or preexistence while acknowledging that John 8:58 is an example of the PPA. In other words, no essential doctrine is lost by rendering this verse in a way that is faithful to its syntax and immediate context.
Examination of Parallel Constructions in John’s Gospel
John 8:24, John 4:26, John 13:19, John 14:9, and John 15:27 collectively illustrate that “ἐγώ εἰμι” can take on different nuances depending on context and implied predicates. The translator is typically comfortable with the fact that Greek present tenses can be retroactive. The only time resistance arises is when the theology surrounding the phrase “I am” becomes entangled with an assumption of an absolute usage. If one methodically applies the same standard for all similarly structured verses, John 8:58 aligns with the PPA reading.
Why the PPA Reading Should Not Be Ignored
The presence of “πρὶν ᾿Αβραὰμ γενέσθαι,” or “before Abraham came to be,” signals a point in the distant past. The Greek present indicative “εἰμί” is placed in a context that explicitly references something preceding Abraham. This context triggers the PPA usage, demanding that an English perfect tense be employed to capture the sense of an ongoing state that started before Abraham’s birth. The question is not complicated for grammarians who weigh the pattern found elsewhere in John. However, theological agendas can cause them to stray from their normal practice.
Additionally, the notion that Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham is, by itself, more than enough to incite outrage. The Jews did not merely protest the mention of a divine name; they responded to what they perceived as a radical pronouncement about Jesus’ nature and authority. In John’s Gospel, the conflict often arises because Jesus asserts prerogatives that place him in a position far above mere humanity (John 5:18, John 10:30–31). In John 8, it is consistent with the storyline that those listening would regard his statement as audacious and worthy of punishment.
The Importance of Context and Flow of Thought
Many interpreters note that verse 57 is the key to understanding verse 58. The challenge was “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” Jesus responds by explaining that his existence did not start with his birth. Claiming to have been alive even before Abraham was born underscores the extraordinary nature of his person. Rendering the text “I have been” or “I have been in existence” flows naturally from that context.
When a translator instead chooses “I am,” it can obscure the direct response to the question about age or length of life. Readers might miss that Jesus’ statement addresses the issue of how he could have known Abraham. The translator is thus responsible for ensuring that the interplay between verse 57 and verse 58 remains coherent and meaningful.
Early Reception and Patristic Writings
In the earliest centuries of church history, some who argued for the deity of Christ did point to John 8:58. However, patristic writers often referenced the broad scope of John’s Gospel rather than fixating solely on “I am.” They recognized that the entire narrative sets forth Jesus as the divine Son. They also recognized that the Greek phrase at John 8:58 had a nuance of continuous existence. The impetus in the second and third centuries was not about fine-tuning a Greek tense but about proclaiming Christ’s high status and rightful worship.
Potential Renderings That Reflect the PPA
Some have offered variations like “Before Abraham was, I have been.” Others add clarifying words for the sake of clarity: “I have been in existence,” “I have existed,” or “I have been here.” The goal in each case is to reflect a state that began before Abraham was born and continues. Greek grammarian Kenneth McKay proposed, “I have been in existence since before Abraham was born,” capturing the progressive sense. Translators might vary in how precisely they phrase it, but the underlying concept remains: Jesus’ existence predates Abraham, and it continues into the present moment of speaking.
Why Some Translations Preserve “I am”
The most common reason is tradition. The “I am” reading has been widespread for centuries, largely due to the influence of the Latin Vulgate and English translations following the tradition of the earliest major English Bibles. Combined with the assumption that Jesus was invoking the name in Exodus 3:14, many translators have felt that “I am” was the only permissible approach. Another factor might be the desire to highlight a theological connection that is not self-evident from the Greek grammar alone.
The Value of Honoring the Greek Text
A translator who respects the Koine Greek background will treat John 8:58 similarly to John 14:9, 15:27, and other PPA texts, rendering it in a manner that conveys continuous action from the past. If the translator does so consistently, it becomes evident that John 8:58 is not an exception. If the context of John 8 indicates that Jesus was responding to a question of age or time, the translator’s decision becomes straightforward: reflect that time nuance in English.
John 8:58 as a Case Study in Translator Integrity
John 8:58 reveals how a single verse can become a battleground for competing translation philosophies. It calls upon the translator to set aside outside pressures, theological preconceptions, or denominational preferences in order to adhere faithfully to grammar and context. Translators who have insisted upon “I am” often do so because they want to preserve a theological reading that ties the verse to Exodus 3:14. Others refrain from the PPA translation because they prefer a minimal approach that changes as few words as possible. Yet the question remains whether it is truly minimal if one’s translation departs from the recognized grammar.
The best measure of integrity is whether the translator’s choices at John 8:58 align with how they consistently treat other verses using the same construction. If they render John 14:9 or 15:27 as “have been,” then logically John 8:58 should follow. If they handle similar grammar the same way throughout the Gospel of John, that indicates a consistent methodology. It is precisely because John 8:58 has a doctrinal dimension that so many find it difficult to treat neutrally.
Testing for Consistency
Consider how a translation committee addresses the Greek present tense with adverbial phrases in all instances outside of John 8:58. If every other example is rendered in a perfect tense form in English, but John 8:58 alone is rendered differently, that is a sign that outside influences or theological commitments might be at work. A faithful approach will either adopt “I have been” for all PPA constructions or else remain consistent in some other manner that acknowledges the nuance of continuous past action into the present.
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Additional Notes on the Tetragrammaton
Many references to God’s name in the Hebrew Scriptures use “Jehovah” rather than “LORD.” Exodus 3:14 is often used to justify “I AM,” but it references Jehovah speaking about Himself. The person speaking at John 8:58 is Jesus, the Son of Jehovah. While the Son shares divine qualities and is exalted, the immediate grammar and context do not show him pronouncing the Tetragrammaton. Instead, the statement is linked to Abraham’s era, clarifying that Jesus existed well before Abraham. A translator who confuses these texts risks conflating the distinct person of the Son with the One who specifically gave the name Jehovah to Moses in Exodus 3:13–15.
Does the PPA Reading Diminish Christ’s Divinity?
A fair question arises: if the translator chooses “I have been,” does that obscure or lessen the status of Christ? The answer is no. The notion that Jesus has existed since before Abraham is already remarkable. One can maintain the highest view of Christ’s role and identity, believing he is “the image of the invisible God” (Colossians 1:15) and fully shares the divine nature, without insisting that John 8:58 be rendered in a manner that defies typical Greek usage. Sound exegesis never rests on a single verse. Even if “I am” were correct, a thorough understanding of biblical Christology draws from the entire New Testament witness to Jesus’ nature and mission.
A Translator’s Example of John 8:58
One might propose this rendering: “Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham came into being, I have been in existence.’” Although it is lengthier than a strictly literal approach, it preserves the emphasis on Jesus’ preexistence and clarifies the time element for modern readers. One could shorten it to “I have been” and allow the context to imply continuous existence. The purpose is to convey the sense the original Greek grammar indicates: that Jesus’ existence extends from a point before Abraham’s birth up to the present exchange.
Another approach might be more concise: “Before Abraham was born, I have been.” This approach is favored by some grammarians because it preserves normal English usage. The idea that Jesus’ existence predates Abraham can be gleaned easily from the statement.
The Reaction of the Jews in John 8:59
Immediately after Jesus utters these words, the Jews pick up stones. This reaction underscores that they grasped a profound claim in Jesus’ words. Whether they believed it was an affront against Jehovah or simply an impossibility that revealed Jesus as a false teacher, they were prepared to kill him for it. A faithful translation that reads “I have been” does not minimize that dramatic moment. It still indicates that Jesus was making a bold statement about his divine origin or preexistence, so bold that it infuriated his listeners. The stone-throwing response can be explained without forcing the text to match Exodus 3:14 word-for-word.
Rejecting the Argument That “I am” Is Absolute
Some commentators hold that John 8:58 must be read as an absolute “I am,” void of any predicate, thereby anchoring the statement in the divine name. However, the grammar of Koine Greek seldom uses the verb “to be” in an absolute sense without implied meaning. When “I am” appears in John’s Gospel, there is often a context that supplies the predicate, whether explicit or implied. In John 8:58, the context supplies an implied predicate of ongoing existence. Linking this verse to Exodus 3:14 as though it were a direct citation cannot be sustained by the Greek text of the Septuagint, which uses a different expression. Although some might see thematic parallels, the direct grammatical equivalence is lacking.
The Value of “Have Been” for Clarity
Modern English readers are more likely to grasp the meaning if they read that Jesus’ existence extends from a time prior to Abraham’s birth until now. That is the essence of the PPA. Translators can note in a footnote that the Greek literally says “I am,” but that normal Greek usage indicates a sense that began in the past and continues. This approach prevents confusion and helps readers see that the statement is about Jesus’ longstanding existence. The faithful translator’s goal is to convey what John intended, rather than forcing the verse to echo Exodus 3:14 or remain locked in a form that yields partial confusion.
Consistency with John 1:1 and John 17:5
The Gospel of John opens with a powerful statement that the Word “was with God” in the beginning. This testifies to the Son’s prehuman existence. John 17:5 records Jesus praying that the Father would glorify him with the glory he had with the Father before the world existed. These verses create a consistent picture: Jesus was there in the beginning, shared glory with the Father, and came to earth to fulfill the Father’s will. Translating John 8:58 as “I have been” aligns with that broader theology. It highlights continuity of being without suggesting that Jesus was pronouncing a distinct divine title.
Implications for Doctrinal Discussion
John 8:58 contributes to the conversation about Christ’s identity. Yet no single verse must carry the entire doctrinal weight. Believers who embrace a conservative approach affirm that Christ is fully divine, the only-begotten Son of Jehovah who came into the world for the sake of humankind. They do not require a forced reading at John 8:58 to uphold that belief. Meanwhile, those who adopt other perspectives often claim that Jesus is distinct from the Father in person but not necessarily inferior in nature. Translators should present the text as accurately as possible, allowing the Spirit-inspired Word to speak without artificial alterations.
The Pitfall of Accusations and Defensiveness
Discussions around John 8:58 can become heated, especially when one party accuses another of rejecting Christ’s deity or harboring a hidden agenda. Yet good translation practice calls for careful study and balanced reasoning. Grammar references are accessible, and they illustrate how Koine Greek handles the present tense with past-time indicators. One can hold robust biblical convictions while allowing Greek grammar to shine in its normal function. The translator need not fear that employing the PPA approach at John 8:58 will undermine truth. The aim is precisely to remain truthful to the biblical text.
Conclusion on John 8:58
John 8:58 stands as a critical text in which translators decide whether to reflect normal Koine Greek usage or to perpetuate a tradition that might obscure the time reference. The immediate context, the recognized Greek grammar of the PPA, and parallel usages in John’s Gospel affirm that Jesus was speaking of a state of existence that began before Abraham was born and continued to the present. Faithful translators usually adopt something like “I have been,” or “I have existed,” to convey that meaning clearly in English.
This choice need not undermine the orthodox teaching of Christ’s divinity. It affirms his extraordinary preexistence without compelling the translator to force a direct allusion to Exodus 3:14. It also addresses the question the Jews posed in verse 57, clarifying how Jesus could have possibly seen Abraham. The translator’s responsibility is to show no partiality, to refrain from superimposing traditions if they conflict with grammar, and to ensure that the final English rendering conveys the writer’s actual meaning. Such an approach upholds the objective historical-grammatical method, honors the structure of the Greek language, and avoids overshadowing the text with preconceived doctrinal agendas.
John 8:58 is a window into how bias can creep into translation decisions. When the translator sees that the same grammar is rendered properly elsewhere but is dismissed or minimized in this one verse, it becomes apparent that outside factors can influence the decision. The more consistent approach is to translate John 8:58 in line with John 14:9 and 15:27, among others, thus preserving the continuity of how Koine Greek conveys actions that started in the past and continue. Jesus’ statement remains astonishing and deeply significant, revealing his prehuman life and spiritual status. Even without capitalizing “I AM,” readers can perceive the greatness of Jesus’ claim to have existed before Abraham. No doctrine is lost by being faithful to the grammar, for the totality of Scripture still proclaims the full significance of Christ’s identity as the divine Son. It is in that spirit of consistency and reverence for God’s Word that translators who adhere to John’s Greek usage choose to render John 8:58 as “I have been,” “I have existed,” or “I have been in existence.” Such a rendering is coherent in English, aligns with the grammar, and fully conveys the force of Jesus’ words, culminating in the reaction of the religious authorities who found this claim intolerable. Faithful translation thus upholds what the text says, giving readers the opportunity to see that before Abraham was even born, Christ was already alive and remains so.
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About the Author
EDWARD D. ANDREWS (AS in Criminal Justice, BS in Religion, MA in Biblical Studies, and MDiv in Theology) is CEO and President of Christian Publishing House. He has authored over 220+ books. In addition, Andrews is the Chief Translator of the Updated American Standard Version (UASV).
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How does the Septuagint, the Greek version of the old testament translated 150/200 B.C. from the Hebrew, translate Exodus 3:14 “I am who am”?
Is it also “ego eimi”?
The Septuagint (LXX) reads ᾿Εγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν which should be rendered “I am the one.” Trying to tie these verses together cannot be maintained because the expression in Ex 3:14 is different from the expression in John 8:58.
What is the expression in John 8:58 in Greek?
Excuse my ignorance.
The Septuagint (LXX) reads ᾿Εγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν which should be rendered “I am the one.”
Wow, I’m surprised to read an article like this from this blog
So it is “ego eimi”, “I am”, which is why the Jews want to stone him, because Jesus is making himself the equal of God. Sounds pretty simple to me.
It;s sad that people base their beliefs off of such esoteric verses.
The belief is not based upon a translation, but on the fact the Jews want to stone Jesus for blasphemy, i.e. claiming that he is God.
Besides, the belief is not based upon that verse particularly.
That is an incorrect interpretation. Jesus was not claiming to be equal to God in this verse. His words of stating that he had been alive since Abraham up unto this conversation evidenced he was a divine person. The grammar, the context, the historical setting and the correct translation all support this. Your wanting it to be Jesus making himself equal to God in this verse is only your wanting it to be.
CPH,
Now you are showing your hand clearly, but it was was knowable from the article, if disguised.
Do you agree that (1)Jesus is God, (2) the second person of the Trinity and (3) equal to the Father?
Do you believe that (1) the Holy Spirit is God, (2) equal to the Father and the Son, and (3) the third person of the Trinity?
What is your denomination?
I wanted to add another reply to this. My whole point of this article is not whether Jesus is God or equal to God. It is that this verse is mistranslated and misinterpreted and cannot be one of the proof-texts so often used Jesus is God or equal to God.
There are many scriptures which tell us that Jesus is God. They are not “proof texts”. They assert Jesus’ divinity.
In the same way, there are many scriptures that tell us that the Holy Spirit is God. They are also not “proof texts”. They assert the Holy Spirit’s divinity.
You clearly did not read the article. You had a preconceived notion coming in and have not even taken the time to read the entire article. You speak of your ignorance as to biblical Greek above when you say, “Excuse my ignorance.” Yet, you are debating a person who knows Greek and Hebrew without even reading the article or doing research.
CPH,
Not a preconceived notion, but obviously a set of beliefs, which without saying so you are challenging. I do not doubt that you know Greek and Hebrew, which I don’t. But I do have knowledge of other things. I did browse through the article, not being a specialist, I do not have as much interest in all the nuances that a person like you has.
You seem to have a different set of beliefs, otherwise I imagine we would not be having this to and fro.
It’s funny when Christians use this verse to claim it is an EXPLICIT mention of the triune doctrine. Any intellectually honest Christian would agree that this doctrine is foreign to the Old Testament and foreign to the mouth of Jesus. In essence, there is no explicit mention just a hopeless attempt at “connect-the-dot theology”.
archeislam,
No one claims this verse is an explicit mention of the triune doctrine.
My question was a general one about CPH/your beliefs.
I have no idea who CPH is, but to ignore his argument and try to focus on the arguer, is not a logical or rational way to approach the subject matter, or in truth in general. Again I don’t know who CPH is, I would comment more on his blog, but it is GRAPHIC intensive, and very slow to load up, lol.
We did not focus on him but the facts of his not reading the article and we merely quoted what he said about himself.
Be so kind to prove your assertion that Exodus 3:14 is a reference to the Father. I’ll help you out here since Exodus 3:2 says it is the Messenger/ Angel of God who appeared and identified himself as the God of the fathers and as the ehyeh.
SURE, HERE IS AN ARTICLE
https://christianpublishinghouse.co/2018/03/29/genesis-3222-28-bdc-did-jacob-wrestle-with-an-angel-or-god-and-how-could-he-have-been-victorious-either-way/
HERE IS ANOTHER ARTICLE
https://christianpublishinghouse.co/2019/07/09/genesis-3230-bdc-why-are-humans-not-able-to-see-the-face-of-god/
HERE is another article
https://christianpublishinghouse.co/2019/08/08/exodus-249-11-otbdc-has-god-ever-truly-been-seen-or-not-is-it-even-possible/
Hello friend, I have some questions about Christianity. Maybe you can help me understand
Thank you for your time,
archivesislam: If you have questions, write support@christianpublishers.org. Apologies for the lateness.