DIFFICULTY: For some scholars, this is a difficulty, as they feel “he removed them [i.e., the people] to the cities,” does not make a lot of sense in this context. They feel that “he made slaves of them” makes more sense in this context. What is the case?
OTTC GENESIS 47:21: Did Moses write of Joseph, saying that “he removed them to the cities” or was it “he enslaved them as slaves”?
