First, it should be stated that every Christian has some theological bias to them, even Bible scholars, which would include Bible translators and textual scholars. Yet, bias affects some more than others. Thus, for the translator, it is simply a matter of how much are you going to allow your biases to impact you. Then, there are publishers who actually control the Bible translation and in many cases, their bottom line is sales, not accuracy. They may feel that a verse that supports a particular doctrinal position, which all one hundred translators know for a fact was not in the original but was added by a copyist centuries later is too important to the Christians who buy their Bible so they will retain that verse that all know to be an interpolation so that there is no detrimental impact on the sales. Second, because one is theologically biased over a verse, this does not mean that what he says about it is wrong. Does he ignore the best textual evidence to retain a preferred verse? Does he violate grammar rules that he applies correctly elsewhere to retain a preferred rendering? This is evidence that theological bias has impacted him.

John 8:58 is one of the most hotly debated verses in the Bible, so our investigation begins and ends here.

UASV	ESV, LEB, HCSB, RSV	NLV	CEV
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was I am.[*]	Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”	Jesus said to them, “For sure, I tell you, before Abraham was born, I was and am and always will be!”	Jesus answered, “I tell you for certain that even before Abraham was, I was, and I am.”
NLT	NAB	TEV, GNT	NASB, ASV
Jesus answered, “I tell you the truth, before Abraham was even born, I Am!	Jesus said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham came to be, I AM.”	“I am telling you the truth,” Jesus replied. “Before Abraham was born, ‘I AM’.”	Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”
John 8:58 American Translation (AT) Jesus said to them, “I tell you, I existed before Abraham was born!”

[*] The literal rendering is (Greek, egoʹ eimiʹ) “I am.” However, the Greek to English grammatically correct rendering should be “… before Abraham came to be I have been in existence.” K. L. McKay, A New Syntax of the Verb in New Testament Greek (New York: Peter Lang, 1994), p. 42. Having [before Abraham / came to be / I am] as far as English word order is fine, but we are violating verb compatibility, mixing a present tense with a past tense, which is not grammatically correct. In both Greek and English, we would put or find our past tense first, followed by the present tense; logically reasoning that the past happened before the present. However, the adverb “before” affects this decision, for it informs us that the action expressed by our present tense verb (“am”) not only began in the past, but it was before our past tense verb (“came to be”), and up unto our past tense verb and still in progress at the time this clause was uttered. The other translations have been following the grammar rule known as PPA, the Present of Past Action still in progress in several other places in John’s Gospel (14:9; 15:27, etc.), wherein a present indicative (“I am” or “you are”), which is accompanied by an adverbial expression (“so much time” or “from the beginning” or “before”), is rendered with the perfect tense of “have been.” The PPA is describing an action that began in the past and has run up unto the time of writing or speaking. The most important interpretation rule is the context. The question is, do we find the context of John 8:58 as being in harmony with our grammar. Well, let us look at the verse(s) that come before and after our verse. In verse 57, the Jews ask a question in reference to Jesus’ statement in verse 56: “Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.” Thus, they reasonably ask, “You are not yet fifty years old and have you seen Abraham?” It is all too clear that we have a question that is based on age, not Jesus’ identity. Our historical-cultural question is addressed in verse 59, where we find the Jews seeking to stone Jesus for his response. What was there about Jesus’ response that would result in their attempt to stone him? First, to claim to have been in existence since before Abraham and up unto this point; would mean Jesus was/is a divine person. Bible scholar Kenneth L. McKay wrote: “to claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd’s violent reaction.” – McKay: The Expository Times, 1996, p. 302.

Here is How We Got There

Throughout this section of the Christian Publishing House blog, Bible Translation Philosophy, we have preached the importance of the literal translation philosophy. However, we have repeatedly said that there are two exceptions to the literal, philosophical position, (1) if the rendering ends up nonsensical, or (2) the rendering presents misinformation. As you can see from the above, there are several different things going on:

(1) Some are trying to remain to what they believe is literal (RSV, ESV, and LEB),

(2) Others are trying to get at the sense of what Jesus meant by the words that he used and how he used them (ASV, UASV, and NASB).

(3) Some are demonstrating theological bias (NLT, NAB, TEV, and GNT).

Before we begin our investigation, first, let us consider some sound advice from the chief translator of the Good News Bible (TEV) Robert Bratcher:

“At least it can be agreed that any translation, in order to be considered good, should satisfy three requirements: (1) it should handle textual matters in an informed and responsible way. . . . (2) Its exegesis of the original texts should be theologically unbiased … (3) Its language should be contemporary; it should conform to normal English usage. – Bratcher 1978, pp 115-116.

First, we do not have to worry about any textual problem with John 8:58. However, his very translation, Today’s English Version (TEV) violated point number 2, in that his team’s exegesis was certainly theologically biased here at John 8:58. As to point number 3, we have already stated our position on that through this publication. Now, before we delve into how the NLT, NAB, TEV, and GNT are theologically biased here, let us look at the original Greek.

We likely recall that an interlinear study tool is not interested in grammar and syntax, but rather only in the lexical English corresponding equivalent. Therefore, the first person, personal pronoun ego would be rendered “I” and the present, active, indicative, verb eimi would be rendered “am.” It is not until we bring our lexical glosses over into English that we begin our investigation of the grammar and syntax.

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 8:58 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

58 εἶπενSaid αὐτοῖςto them ἸησοῦςJesus ᾿ΑμὴνTruly ἀμὴνtruly λέγωI say ὑμῖν,to you πρὶνBefore ᾿ΑβραὰμAbraham γενέσθαιto become ἐγὼI εἰμί.am.

Grammar and Syntax

• πρὶν (prin) Adjective adverb [“before”] (adverbial past time expression)
• ᾿Αβραὰμ (Abraam) Noun accusative [“Abraham”] (direct object) 
• γενέσθαι (genesthai) Verb infinitive aorist middle-deponent [“to become”] (past tense)
• ἐγὼ (ego) Noun pronoun nominative [“I”] (subject) 
• εἰμί (eimi) Verb indicative present active [“I am”] 

Having [before Abraham / came to be / I am] as far as English word order is fine, but we are violating verb compatibility, mixing a present tense with a past tense, which is not grammatically correct. In both Greek and English, we would put or find our past tense first, followed by the present tense; logically reasoning that the past happened before the present. However, the adverb “before” affects this decision, for it informs us that the action expressed by our present tense verb (“am”) not only began in the past, but it was before our past tense verb (“came to be”), and up unto our past tense verb and still in progress at the time this clause was uttered.

Lexical-Syntactical Analysis and Comparison

In this stage, we will continue with our look at individual words (lexicology), but we will also take a deeper look into our new stage of how these words are dealt with in concert with each other (syntax). However, to avoid theological bias, we will look at two other examples of this same grammatical construction in the Gospel of John first, staying outside of the highly theologically charged John 8:58 at this time, to see how other translations deal with the grammatical construction before rendering John 8:58.

John 14:9 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

9 λέγειSays αὐτῷto him ὁthe ἸησοῦςJesus Τοσοῦτονin such χρόνονtime μεθ’with ὑμῶνyou εἰμὶI am καὶand οὐκnot ἔγνωκάςyou have known με,me,

Literal: So much time with you I am

The “I am” present indicative of John 14:9 is ‘modified’ by the past time expression “so much time.” How do our translations render this verse? Do they ignore the grammar rules, using present tense (“I am”), or do they follow the grammar rules that we are about to discuss, and use a perfect tense (“have been”)? Our translations below do follow the grammar rule.

ESV	NASB	ASV	CSB
Have I been with you so long	Have I been so long with you	Have I been so long time with you	Have I been among you all this time

John 15:27 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

27 καὶalso ὑμεῖςyou δὲbut μαρτυρεῖτε,testify, ὅτιthat ἀπ’from ἀρχῆςbeginning μετ’with ἐμοῦme ἐστέ.you are.

The “you are” present indicative of John 15:27 is ‘modified’ by the past time expression “from the beginning.”

ESV	NASB	ASV	CSB
you have been with me from the beginning	you have been with Me from the beginning	ye have been with me from the beginning	you have been with me from the beginning

At this point, it is time to visit the Greek grammars, looking for this particular construction that we have found in John 8:58, as well as all throughout the Gospel of John. The grammar rule for a present tense that is found positioned with an adverbial expression of past time and duration is largely known as a PPA

Moulton’s references Ernest De Witt Burton in his Syntax of the Moods and Tenses in N.T. Greek, ‘The Tenses,’ par.17, p.10, we can read: “17. The Present of Past Action still in progress [PPA]. The Present Indicative, accompanied by an adverbial expression denoting duration and referring to past time, is sometimes used in Greek, as in German, to describe an action which, beginning in past time, is still in progress at the time of speaking. English idiom requires the use of the Perfect in such cases.” Bold and underline is mine.

A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, by Dana and Mantey, MacMillan, 1927, p. 183, says, “Sometimes the progressive present is retroactive in its application, denoting that which has begun in the past and continued into the present. For the want of a better name, we may call it the present of duration. This use is generally associated with an adverb of time, and may best be rendered by the English perfect. “Ye have been (present tense) with me from the beginning” John 15:27.”

A Grammar of New Testament Greek, by J. H. Moulton, Vol. III, by Nigel Turner, Edinburgh, 1963, p. 62, says, “The Present which indicates the continuance of an action during the past and  up to the moment of speaking is virtually the same as Perfective, the only difference being that the action is conceived as still in progress . . . It is frequent in the N[ew] T[estament]: Lk 2⁴⁸ 13⁷ . . . 15²⁹ . . . Jn 5⁶ 8⁵⁸ . . . ”

Greek Grammar for Colleges, by Herbert Weir Smyth, New York, 1920, pp. 422-423: “The present, when accompanied by a definite or indefinite expression of past time, is used to express an action begun in the past and continued in the present. The ‘progressive perfect’ is often used in translation. Thus,… I have been long (and am still) wondering.”

The Expository Times, 1996, page 302 by Kenneth McKay says, “The verb ‘to be’ is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of ‘be in existence’, in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated ‘I have been in existence since before Abraham was born’, if it were not for the obsession with the simple words ‘I am’. If we take the Greek words in their natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd’s violent reaction.”

As we can see, the translations have been following the grammar rule known as PPA, the Present of Past Action still in progress, wherein a present indicative (“I am” or “you are”), which is accompanied by an adverbial expression (“so much time” or “from the beginning” or “before”), is rendered with the perfect tense of “have been.” The PPA is describing an action that began in the past and has run up unto the time of writing or speaking. Let us pause and look at two more examples.

John 8:24 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

24 εἶπονI said οὖνtherefore ὑμῖνto you ὅτιthat ἀποθανεῖσθεyou will die ἐνin ταῖςthe ἁμαρτίαιςsins ὑμῶν·of you; ἐὰνif γὰρfor μὴnot πιστεύσητεyou might trust ὅτιthat ἐγώI εἰμι,am, ἀποθανεῖσθεyou will die ἐνin ταῖςthe ἁμαρτίαιςsins ὑμῶν.of you.

We have an implied predicate nominative (“he”) that comes after the “I am.”

ESV	NASB	ASV	CSB
for unless you believe that I am he you will die in your sins.	for unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins.	for except ye believe that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.	For if you do not believe that I am he, you will die in your sins.”

Notice that all of these translations recognize the implied predicate nominative (“he”) that comes after the “I am.”

John 4:26 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

26 λέγειIs saying αὐτῇto her ὁthe ἸησοῦςJesus ᾿ΕγώI εἰμι,am, ὁthe (one) λαλῶνspeaking σοι.to you.

Here in John chapter 4, you have Jesus being spoken to by a Samaritan woman. She is inquiring about the coming Messiah, and Jesus does something with the Samaritan woman that he has not done even with his disciples, He discloses who he really is, “I am the one” [i.e., the Messiah]. The ESV, like the other translations that we have considered, is aware that there is an implied predicate pronoun in the sentence “I am [he] the one speaking to you.”

ESV	NASB	ASV	CSB
you may believe that I am he	you may believe that I am he	you may believe that I am he	you will believe that I am he

John 13:19 The Greek-English New Testament Interlinear (GENTI)

19 ἀπ’From ἄρτιright now λέγωI am saying ὑμῖνto you πρὸbefore τοῦthe γενέσθαι,to occur, ἵναin order that    πιστεύητεyou may be believing ὅτανwhen γένηταιit should occur ὅτιthat ἐγώI εἰμι.am.

The predicate nominative is supplied from context in the English translation.

The Lexham English Bible writes in a footnote, “Here the predicate nominative (“he”) is understood, but must be supplied in the translation.” Again, our other translations recognize this.

John 13:19 Lexham English Bible (LEB) 19 From now on I am telling you before it happens, in order that when it happens you may believe that I am he.[a] John 13:19 *Here the predicate nominative (“he”) is understood, but must be supplied in the translation

ESV	NASB	ASV	HCSB
I am telling you this now, before it takes place, that when it does take place you may believe that I am he.	From now on I am telling you before it comes to pass, so that when it does occur, you may believe that I am He.	From henceforth I tell you before it come to pass, that, when it is come to pass, ye may believe that I am he.	I am telling you now before it happens, so that when it does happen you will believe that I am he.

Jesus is merely pointing to himself as a fulfillment of the prophecy in which one of his closest disciples would betray him. (See John 13:18 and Psalm 41:9)

Context, Context, Context

The most important interpretation rule is the context. All along, our grammar has been telling us about the PPA rule. The PPA is describing an action that began in the past and had run up unto the time of writing or speaking. The question is, do we find the context of John 8:58 as being in harmony with our grammar. Well, let us look at the verse(s) that come before and after our verse. In verse 57, the Jews ask a question in reference to Jesus’ statement in verse 56: “Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and was glad.” Thus, they reasonably ask, “You are not yet fifty years old and have you seen Abraham?” It is all too clear that we have a question that is based on age, not Jesus’ identity.

John 8:56-59 New American Standard Bible (NASB) 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.” 57 So the Jews said to Him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have You seen Abraham?” 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.” 59 Therefore they picked up stones to throw at Him, but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple.

John 8:56-59 Updated American Standard Version (UASV) 56 Your father Abraham rejoiced that he would see my day. He saw it and rejoiced.” 57 So the Jews said to him, “You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” 58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was I am. 59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple.

Clearly, John 8:58 has no meaning in the way of expressing existence or some kind of identity. Why are we even saying this? Because the theologically biased translators attempt to argue that that the “I am” is not predicated. In other words, for them, the “I am” is absolute, a reference to what they perceive to be the divine name in Exodus 3:14.[1] These translators believe that the “I AM” as they render it is a title for Jesus, which ties him into Exodus 3:14, which is rendered, “God replied to Moses, ‘I AM who I AM. Say this to the people of Israel: I AM has sent me to you.’” Notice that the NLT capitalizes the “I AM” in both John 8:58 and Exodus 3:14. There is no objective reason to capitalize the “I AM.” It is completely subjective, in that their agenda is to tie Jesus in with Exodus 3:14. However, that alone is a problem, because Exodus 3:14 is referring to the Father, and John 8:58 is referring to Jesus, his length of existence actually. Therefore, the Son and the Father are two separate persons. Moreover, the context is not about the person of Jesus or his title, but the length of his existence, i.e., how long he has been around. Some have tried to turn to the Greek Septuagint as they endeavor to connect the expression at John 8:58 with Exodus 3:14. However, the Septuagint (LXX) reads ᾿Εγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν which should be rendered “I am the one.” Trying to tie these verses together cannot be maintained because the expression in Exodus 3:14 is different from the expression in John 8:58.

Bible Background

Our historical-cultural question is addressed in verse 59, where we find the Jews seeking to stone Jesus for his response. What was there about Jesus’ response that would result in their attempt to stone him? First, to claim to have been in existence since before Abraham and up unto this point; would mean Jesus was/is a divine person. Bible scholar Kenneth L. McKay wrote: “to claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd’s violent reaction.” – McKay: The Expository Times, 1996, p. 302.

Our “am” present indicative is ‘modified’ by the adverbial past time expression of prin (before), an adverb. In other words, “Before Abraham came to be.” As many grammarians have suggested, getting the exact sense of the original Greek, it is best to render the present indicative “am” as the perfect indicative “have been.” It is not only best but also required as was said; the present indicative “am” is ‘modified’ to the perfect indicative “have been.”

As was said earlier, a translation should reflect the meaning of the original Greek in English by way of being unbiased, accurate, clear, and natural. Is a translation unbiased to follow a grammatical construction in other parts of John when there is no theological significance at stake, but to abandon this grammar at John 8:58? Is it unbiased to capitalize εἰμί (eimi) as “I AM” when there is absolutely no authority for such a decision? Is a translator accurately communicating the correct sense when he ignores the grammar and the context and takes it upon himself to render a verse based on his preconceived understanding? Is it clear if the reader is blocked by the translator’s choice and is unable to achieve the correct mental understanding of the original writer? Does the translation that reads, “Before Abraham came to be, I AM,” sound natural in our English language and is it appropriate?

Final Analysis

The final analysis is to ask how John 8:58b should be translated into English? Let us look for the bounds that we have set forth herein this article: grammatical, coherent and conveying what was meant, as well as the avoidance of intentional theological bias. Our objective is to follow the principle mentioned in Dr. Robert H. Stein’s lectures, i.e., ‘render it as it should be, if it supports a doctrinal position, so be it. However, if it does not support a doctrinal position, so be it as well. God does not need our help in conveying a doctrine. No doctrine is built on any one Scripture.’

John 8:58

Jesus said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham came to be, I AM.”

[This is the most common rendering minus the capitalization of the “I AM.” However, it falls short in many areas. First, it is not grammatically correct, because the English present come before some past time. This makes it incoherent, meaning that it does not convey the sense that Jesus was attempting to express. It has elements of theological bias because of the capitalization of the “I AM.”]

John 8:58

Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham came to be, I am.”

[Again, this rendering falls short in at least two areas. First, it is not grammatically correct, because the English present come before some past time. This makes it incoherent, meaning that it does not convey these sense that Jesus was attempting to express.]

John 8:58

Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham came into being, I was.”

[This rendering is grammatically correct, making it coherent, and possesses some semblance of what Jesus meant. However, Jesus entire thought was that he was in existence prior to Abraham and had been living up unto his present conversation.]

John 8:58

Jesus said to them, “Most truly I say to you, Before Abraham came to be, I have been in existence.”

[This is the least favored by most translators, even though they use “have been” with the same grammatical construction elsewhere in the Gospel of John. An earlier edition of the New American Standard Bible had “I have been” as a marginal note. It is not grammatical as far as English goes because a perfect cannot appear with specifying adverbials. However, it is coherent in that the reader now fully understands what Jesus meant about his being in existence prior to Abraham’s being born and has existed up unto his current conversation. It is also the recommended rendering by the grammarians because of the present indicative “I am,” which is accompanied by an adverbial expression “before,” so it should be rendered with the perfect tense of “have been.”]

The problem that we have is that we must set aside our desire to be literal here because the Greek and English have two different aspects. While there is a distaste for “Before Abraham came to be, I have been in existence,” it must be the preferred choice because it conveys the entire sense of what Jesus meant to convey, although it is ungrammatical in English. There is no theological baggage of trying to tie it to any other text, nor some avoidance of a grammar rule because it does not fit our preconceived ideas. One way to deal with the issue would be to adopt the dynamic equivalent rendering by K. L. McKay, “I have been in existence before Abraham was born.”[2]

[1] Exodus 3:14 New Living Translation (NLT) ¹⁴ God replied to Moses, “I AM who I AM. Say this to the people of Israel: I AM has sent me to you.”

[2] K. L. McKay, A New Syntax of the Verb in New Testament Greek, and the Gospel of John, 91.

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